linguistics question 

is "the two of us" a partitive construction or something else?

it seems to carry the implication that "the two" is equivalent to "us", which is not typical of partitives (some claim that a partitive must refer to a proper subset of a set of things)

linguistics question 

@alyssa something else i think; it’s saying essentially “the two which form us”, “the two that we are”; in this sense i think the usage of “of” is more attributive (qualifying which two), like in “the united states of america”

linguistics question 

@Lady yeah, i interpret it the same way, but i'm unsure of other cases where "the X of Y" has that function in english. i'm not sure your "united states of america" example fits; would you not consider that a genitive?

linguistics question 

@alyssa “genitive” is a complicated term in english, but i think “united states of america” is grammatically more similar to “freedom of speech” than “america’s united states”

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linguistics question 

@alyssa (“united states of america’s” would be the proper genitive, probably)

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