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i think it is inherently self-contradictary to argue that judges should not rule according to their purrsonal morals, but rather by what is best for the people. who decides the latter in the first place? if the judge is trying to determine the latter, will that not always be preconditioned by their own purrsonal morals??
@aescling I think I can see, like, /an/ argument? Like, I could think it's irresponsible to ride a bicycle without a helmet, but declaring that to be illegal would be a bad idea
it's a pretty thin distinction and in practice people rule on their personal morals constantly
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